Every new scientist must learn early that it is never good taste to designate the sum of two quantities in the form:
Anyone who has made a study of advanced mathematics is aware that:
Therefore eq. (1) can be expressed more scientifically as:
This may be further simplified by use of the relations:
Equation (2) may therefore be rewritten as:
At this point it should be obvious that eq. (3) is much clearer and more easily understood than eq. (1). Other methods of a similar nature could be used to clarify eq. (1), but these are easily divined once the reader grasps the underlying principles.
June 4, 2008 at 11:45 pm
This was re-published in the anthology “Science with a Smile”, although since I do not have the book right now, I do not know the original journal it was published in.
Where did you find it?
June 5, 2008 at 2:27 am
Oops, I should have credited that. I got it from:
http://buddy.bbsg.ca/jokes/mathjokes.php
There a lot many more hilarious math jokes on the site!
December 26, 2008 at 1:19 am
he he he, I believe the discussion about 1+1=2 is not the ordinary math joke. Because recently is also discussed intensively in MIT. But, my proof for the 1+1=2 more easily as appear at this address :
http://castingoutnines.wordpress.com/2008/12/10/leibniz-on-112/
Please visit to the website.
January 9, 2009 at 9:42 am
I am interested to Nadya’s statement On castingoutnines.wordpress.com/2008/12/10/leibniz-on-112/
“Sorry sir, my simple question is not a joke. it will reveal the secret of science that maybe next time to becomes our living be better. But if we ask to the mathematicians about 1-1 =0, I am sure they will answer with the relaxed that 1 + (-1) = 0. Thinking about my purpose sir. Thx.” How about you all if somebody asks how to get 1-1 ?.
January 9, 2009 at 10:17 am
apologize rohedi, I’ve copied your comment at this address
http://math152.wordpress.com/2008/10/08/leonhard-euler/#comment-215
January 12, 2009 at 5:47 pm
Well, now I will give a challenge for you all.
Please prove the trigonometric indentity
[sin(x)]^2+[cos(x)]^2=1
using three different’s way.
January 12, 2009 at 5:55 pm
Hi aria (http://ariaturns.wordpress.com), you may also appreciate for the above challenge.
January 12, 2009 at 6:05 pm
Hi zaki (http://zaki.math.web.id/) you may go with me to USA if you can show me how to get 3^(1/3) without using calculator and numerical method. Okay, are you ready? please post your answer at this funny blog.